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RAC - 7.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES – DEPARTURE PROCEDURES

7.1 Aerodrome Operations

Pilots should read RAC 4.2 to 4.5 in conjunction with the IFR departure procedures listed in this section.

7.2 ATIS Broadcasts

If available, the basic aerodrome information should be obtained from ATIS prior to requesting taxi clearance.

7.3 Initial Contact

On initial contact with ATC (clearance delivery or ground control), a pilot departing IFR should state the destination and planned initial cruising altitude.

7.4 IFR Clearances

At locations where a “Clearance Delivery” frequency is listed, pilots should obtain their IFR clearance on this frequency prior to contacting ground control. Where no clearance delivery frequency is listed, the IFR clearance will normally be relayed by ground control after taxi authorization has been issued. However, due to high fuel consumption during ground running time, some pilots of turbojet aircraft may wish to obtain their IFR clearance prior to starting engines. Pilots using this procedure should call ATC, using a phrase such as READY TO START NOW or READY TO START AT (TIME). Normally this request should be made within 5 minutes of the planned engine start time.

New technology available in some control towers permits the electronic delivery of initial IFR clearances via air-ground data link (AGDL). This new delivery method is known as pre-departure clearance (PDC) and is available to those airline companies with an on-site computer capable of interfacing with ATC and the data link service provider.

7.5 SID

At certain airports, an IFR departure clearance may include departure instructions known as a standard instrument departure (SID). A SID is a planned IFR ATC departure procedure, published in the CAP, for the pilot’s and controller’s use in graphic and textual form. SIDs provide a transition from the terminal to the appropriate en route structure, and may be either:

a. pilot navigation SIDs—established where the pilot is required to use the chart as reference for navigation to the en route phase; or

b. vector SIDs—established where ATC will provide radar navigational guidance to a filed/assigned route or to a fix depicted on the chart. Pilots are expected to use the SID chart as reference for navigation until radar vectoring has commenced.

Pilots of aircraft operating at airports for which SIDs have been published will normally be issued a SID clearance by ATC. No pilot is required to accept a SID clearance. If any doubt exists as to the meaning of such a clearance, the pilot should request a detailed clearance.

Routings contained in SIDs will normally be composed of two segments:

a. an initial segment from the departure end of the runway to the position where the aircraft will first turn from the initial departure heading; and

b. a second segment, either via radar vectors or by pilot navigation, from the first turning point to the SID termination point.

When instructed to fly on the runway heading, or when flying a SID for which no specific heading is published, pilots are expected to fly or maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centreline of the departure runway until otherwise instructed by ATC. Drift correction must not be applied, e.g. Runway 04, if the actual magnetic heading of the runway centreline is 044°, then fly a heading of 044°M.

When flying a SID for which a specific heading is published, the pilot is expected to steer the published SID heading until radar vectoring commences. This is because initial separation is based on divergence between assigned headings until radar separation is established.

When assigning SIDs, ATC will include the following:

a. the name of SID;

b. the SID termination fix, if appropriate;

c. the transition, if necessary; and

d. the time or location for the aircraft to expect a climb to an operationally suitable altitude or flight level, if necessary.
(NOTE: An “expect further clearance” statement may be included in the SID chart.)

Example:

CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT, TORONTO ONE DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE.

NOTE: A SID termination fix may be a NAVAID, intersection, or DME and is normally located on an established airway where the SID terminates and the en route phase of flight commences. The SID, as published, contains an altitude to climb to after departure; however, ATC may assign an altitude different from the altitude specified in the SID, provided the altitude is stated and a readback is obtained from the pilot prior to departure. In addition, where vector SIDs are used, ATC may assign a different initial departure heading. However, an ATC revision to any item of a SID does not cancel the SID.

Example:

CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT, TORONTO ONE DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE, CLIMB TO AMENDED ALTITUDE, SEVEN THOUSAND…

If an aircraft is issued a vector SID, radar vectors will be used, as traffic permits, to provide navigational guidance to the filed/assigned route and over the SID termination fix. However, if the controller or the aircraft will gain an operational advantage, the aircraft may be vectored on a route that will not take the aircraft over the SID termination fix.

In this case, if ATC had previously specified a SID termination fix as the location for the aircraft to expect to climb to an operationally suitable altitude or flight level, the controller shall cancel the SID. If, with the change of clearance, it is not practicable for the controller to assign an operationally suitable altitude or flight level, the controller will specify another location or time to expect the higher altitude.

Example:

SID CANCELLED, VECTORS TO (fix or airway) (heading). EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL THREE FIVE ZERO AT FOUR FIVE D-M-E WEST OF EDMONTON VORTAC.

It is impossible to precisely define “operationally suitable altitudes” to meet requirements in all circumstances.

The following are considered operationally suitable altitudes or flight levels:

a. piston aircraft—flight planned altitude or lower; and

b. other aircraft—flight planned altitude or altitude as near as possible to the flight planned altitude taking into consideration the aircraft’s route of flight. As a guideline, an altitude not more than 4 000 ft below the flight planned flight level in the high level structure will be considered as operationally suitable in most cases.

If it is not practicable for the controller to assign the flight planned altitude and if the pilot has not been informed as to when they may expect a clearance to another altitude, it is the pilot’s responsibility to advise ATC if the currently assigned altitude is not satisfactory to permit the aircraft to proceed to the destination airport, should a communications failure occur.

The controller will then be required to issue an appropriate “expect further clearance” statement or issue alternative instructions.

Controllers are required to issue a clearance to the altitude or flight level the pilot was told to expect prior to the time or location specified in an “expect further clearance” statement. [See RAC 6.3.2.2(b)(ii)(C)]. The pilot must ensure that further clearance is received because the “altitude to be expected” included in the clearance is not applicable:

a. once the aircraft has proceeded beyond the fix specified in the “expect further clearance” statement; or

b. once the time designated in the “expect further clearance” statement has expired.

SIDs may include specific communications failure procedures. These specific procedures supersede the standard communication failure procedures.

It is the pilot’s responsibility to follow the noise abatement procedures. SIDs, as published, will not contravene them. When ATC issues radar vectors, they will commence only after the requirements of the noise abatement procedure have been complied with.

The initial call to departure control should contain at least:

a. the aircraft call sign;

b. the departure runway;

c. the present vacating altitude (to the nearest 100-ft increment); and

d. the assigned (SID) altitude.

Example:

OTTAWA DEPARTURE, BEECH GOLF ALFA BRAVO TANGO, OFF RUNWAY 25, HEADING 250, LEAVING 1 900 FOR 4 000.

NOTE: An altitude readout is valid if the readout value does not differ from the aircraft reported altitude by more than 200 ft. Pilot altitude reports should be made to the nearest 100-ft increment.

 

7.6 Noise Abatement Procedures — Departure

7.6.1 General

These aeroplane operating procedures for the takeoff and climb have been developed so as to ensure that the necessary safety of flight operations is maintained whilst minimizing exposure to noise on the ground. One of the two procedures listed in RAC 7.6.3 should be applied routinely for all takeoffs where noise abatement procedures are in effect.

Nothing in these procedures shall prevent the pilot-in-command from exercising his/ her authority for the safe operation of the aeroplane, except that when a climb gradient is published, it must be maintained, or alternate procedures must be adopted.

The procedures herein describe the methods for noise abatement when a noise problem is evident. They can comprise any one or more of the following:

(a) use of noise preferential runways to direct the initial and final flight paths of aeroplanes away from noise-sensitive areas;

(b) use of noise preferential routes to assist aeroplanes in avoiding noise-sensitive areas on departure and arrival, including the use of turns to direct aeroplanes away from noise-sensitive areas located under or adjacent to the usual takeoff and approach flight paths; and

(c) use of noise abatement takeoff or approach procedures, designed to minimize the overall exposure to noise on the ground and, at the same time, maintain the required levels of flight safety.

7.6.2 Noise Preferential Runways

Preferred runway directions for takeoff are designated for noise abatement purposes; the objective being to use, whenever possible, those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise-sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight.

Noise abatement is not the determining factor in runway designation under the following circumstances:

(a) if the runway is not clear and dry, i.e., it is adversely affected by snow, slush, ice, water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances;

(b) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 25 KT; and

(c) when the tail wind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 KT.

NOTE: Although ATS personnel may select a preferential runway in accordance with the foregoing criteria, pilots are not obligated to accept the runway for taking off or landing. It remains the pilot’s responsibility to decide if the assigned runway is operationally acceptable.

7.6.3 Noise Abatement Departure Procedures (NADP)

NADP are designed to minimize the environmental impact of departing aircraft without compromising safety. Typically, operators require two procedures: one to minimize close-in noise (NADP1), the other to minimize noise over a more distant noise-sensitive area (NADP2).

Under the NADP concept, airport operators identify their noise and emission control needs and may identify specific noise-sensitive areas. Aircraft operators choose the departure method that safely meets the airport operator’s objectives.

When deciding on a noise abatement strategy, it is important to keep in mind that each procedure minimizes noise in its target area at the expense of relatively increased noise elsewhere. NADP1 reduces noise immediately after takeoff, but results in higher downrange noise than NADP2, and vice versa. For each aircraft type, powerplant and set of takeoff conditions, there is a distance at which the NADP1 and NADP2 noise contours cross over. The area from the takeoff to the crossover point defines the ‘close-in’ zone of NADP1, while the area beyond the crossover point is the effective range of NADP2.

When developing a noise abatement strategy, airports and air operators should consider the following:

  • a noise abatement departure shall not invalidate an engine failure strategy;
  • aircraft limitations, including maximum body angle limits, shall be respected at all times;
  • where possible, each aircraft type should base its standard departure procedure on the noise abatement strategy that minimizes its overall noise impact;
  • operators serving certain noise-sensitive airports may need to follow specific, non-standard departure procedures. Crew training and departure information shall address identification and procedural differences associated with alternate noise abatement procedures; and
  • where applicable, air traffic control agencies should be involved in the development of noise abatement procedures, especially regarding take-off flight path in the event of an engine failure.

In addition to the above general requirements, the following operational limitations apply:

  • NAPDs requiring reduced take-off thrust settings may only be flown when reduced thrust is permitted by the aircraft flight manual or aircraft operating manual;
  • noise abatement procedures shall not be executed below 800 ft AAE;
  • noise abatement procedures are not to be used when wind shear warnings exist, or the presence of wind shear or downburst activity is suspected; and
  • conduct of noise abatement procedures is secondary to the satisfaction of obstacle requirements.

NAPDs start at or above 800 ft and initiate the final stage at or below 3 000 ft AAE, allowing operators to develop specific procedures to suit their local situations.

Operators transitioning from VNAP to NADP will note that the NADP1 envelope includes the former VNAP A procedure, while NADP2 includes the former VNAP B procedure.

To illustrate the NADP concept, two examples of compliant procedures appear below. Operators are free to design other procedures that fit within the NADP envelopes.

NADP 1 (criteria for a close-in noise abatement procedure):

This procedure involves a power reduction at or above the prescribed minimum altitude (no less than 800 ft) AAE and delaying flap/slat retraction until the prescribed maximum altitude (3 000 ft) AAE is attained. At the prescribed maximum altitude, accelerate and retract flaps/slats on schedule, while maintaining a positive rate of climb, and complete the transition to normal en-route climb speed. The initial climbing speed to the noise abatement initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 kt.

Specific example of NADP 1:

  • Initial climb to 800 ft AAE with take-off thrust and V2 + 10 to 20 kt.
  • Upon reaching an altitude of 800 ft AAE, adjust and maintain engine thrust in accordance with the noise abatement thrust schedule provided in the aircraft operating manual. Maintain a climb speed of V2 + 10 to 20 kt with flaps and slats in the take-off configuration.
  • At 3 000 ft AAE, while maintaining a positive rate of climb, accelerate and retract flaps/slats on schedule.
  • At 3 000 ft AAE, accelerate to normal en-route climb speed.

Note: To assist in planning departure spacing, pilots intending to use NADP 1 at Canadian airports are to notify ATC Clearance Delivery or Ground Control. At airports where NADP 1 is the only procedure to follow, ATC does not need to be notified.

NADP 1 (criteria for a close-in noise abatement procedure)

NADP 2 (criteria for distant noise abatement procedure):

This procedure involves the initiation of flap/slat retraction at or above the prescribed minimum altitude (800 ft) AAE but before reaching the prescribed maximum altitude (3 000 ft) AAE. The flaps/slats are to be retracted on schedule, while maintaining a positive rate of climb. The thrust reduction is to be performed with the initiation of the first flaps/slats retraction or when the zero flaps/slats configuration is attained. At the prescribed maximum altitude, complete the transition to normal en-route climb procedures. The initial climbing speed to the noise abatement initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 kt and the noise abatement procedure is not to be initiated at less than 800 ft AAE.

Specific example of NADP 2:

  • Initial climb to 800 ft AAE with take-off thrust and V2 + 10 to 20 kt.
  • Upon reaching an altitude equivalent to 800 ft AAE, decrease aircraft body angle while maintaining a positive rate of climb, accelerate towards VZF speed and reduce thrust after flaps/slats retraction.
  • Maintain a positive rate of climb and accelerate to and maintain a climb speed of VZF + 10 to 20 kt until 3 000 ft AAE.
  • At 3000 ft AAE, accelerate to normal en-route climb speed.

    The use of this guidance material should be limited to acquiring general insight into NADPs. In applying this guidance, users should seek expert noise and emissions advice.

    NADP 2 (criteria for distant noise abatement procedure):

7.7 Obstacle and Terrain Clearance

Aerodromes that have an instrument approach procedure published in CAP also have a procedure referred to as an IFR departure procedure. IFR departure procedures are expressed in the form of “Takeoff Minima” on the aerodrome chart, and meet obstacle and terrain clearance requirements. These procedures are based on the premise that on departure an aircraft will:

(a) cross at least 35 feet above the departure end of the runway;

(b) climb straight ahead to 400 feet AAE before commencing any turns; and

(c) maintain a climb gradient of at least 200 feet per NM throughout the climb to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Climb gradients greater than 200 feet per NM may be published. In this case, the aircraft is expected to achieve and maintain the published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue climbing at a minimum of 200 feet per NM until reaching a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations.

For flight planning purposes, departure procedures assume normal aircraft performance in all cases

IFR departure procedures in the “Takeoff Minima” box are shown as either:

(a) 1/2 – This indicates that IFR departures from the specified runway(s) will be assured of obstacle and terrain clearance in any direction if the aircraft meets the previously stated premise. Pilots may consider this procedure as “Takeoff, climb on course”. The minimum visibility (unless otherwise approved by the appropriate approving authority) for takeoff in these circumstances is 1/2 SM. IFR takeoffs for rotorcraft are permitted when the takeoff visibility is one-half the CAP value, but no less than 1/4 SM.

(b) * – The asterisk (*) following all or specific runways refers the pilot to the applicable minimum takeoff visibility (1/2 or SPECVIS) and corresponding procedures which, if followed, will ensure obstacle and terrain clearance. Procedures may include specific climb gradients, routings, visual climb requirements, or a combination thereof. Where a visual climb or manœuvre is stated in the departure procedure, pilots are expected to comply with the Specified Takeoff Minimum Visibility (SPEC VIS) corresponding to the appropriate speed associated with the aircraft category listed in the following table:

AIRCRAFT CATEGORY

A

 

C

D

Specified Takeoff Minimum Visibility
(SPEC VIS) in SM

1

1 1/2

2

2

(c) NOT ASSESSED – IFR departures have not been assessed for obstacles. Pilots-in-command are responsible for determining minimum climb gradients and/or routings for obstacle and terrain avoidance.

In absence of a published visibility for a particular runway, a pilot may depart IFR by using a takeoff visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles and terrain on departure. In no case should the takeoff visibility be less than 1/2 SM (1/4 SM for rotorcraft).

Where aircraft limitations or other factors preclude the pilot from following the published procedure, it is the pilot-in-command’s responsibility to determine alternative procedures which will take into account obstacle and terrain avoidance.

ATC terms such as “on departure, right turn climb on course” or “on departure, left turn on course” are not to be considered specific departure instructions. It remains the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that terrain and obstacle clearance has been achieved by conforming with the IFR departure procedures.

SIDs incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance within the procedure. Pilots should note that SIDs published only in textual form at military aerodromes do not incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance. At these aerodromes, it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure appropriate obstacle and terrain clearance on departure.

7.7.1 Visual Climb Over the Airport

The visual climb over the airport (VCOA)—sometimes referred to as “climb visual” or “visual climb” in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP)—was developed to provide an alternate IFR departure procedure for aircraft that cannot meet the greater-than-standard climb gradient specified in the primary instrument departure procedure.

NOTE: Occasionally, the VCOA may be the only available departure procedure developed for an aerodrome.

The VCOA differs from other instrument departure procedures in that the pilot must maintain certain visual references with the ground (and obstacles) until reaching a given altitude over the aerodrome.

NOTE: Even though the aircraft is being operated with visual references to the ground, it is still departing on an IFR clearance.

The VCOA text includes a specified take-off minimum visibility (SPEC VIS) and a climb-to altitude (ASL). The SPEC VIS is the minimum visibility (in SM) that a pilot requires to manoeuvre the aircraft while also maintaining a visual reference with the centre of the aerodrome. The climb-to altitude is the minimum altitude the aircraft must reach before departing from over the aerodrome.

It is the pilot’s responsibility to see and avoid obstacles while climbing visually. The visual climb segment ends when the aircraft crosses the aerodrome at or above the required minimum altitude. Unless otherwise stated, from this point on, or when the expression “before proceeding on course” (BPOC) is used, obstacles will be cleared if the aircraft maintains a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM to the en-route structure,.

The pilot-in-command (PIC) should ensure that the reported ceiling is above the climb-to altitude and that the local prevailing visibility is equal to or greater than that required in the procedure. Additionally, before taxiing for departure, the PIC should inform ATC of the intention to perform a VCOA so that the appropriate coordination can be ensured. If ATC services are not available, then intentions should be broadcast on the ATF frequency (see RAC 7.9).

 

7.8 Release from Tower Frequency

If the departure airport is located within a terminal control area, the departing IFR flight will be cleared by the tower to contact a specific control unit on a specified frequency once clear of conflicting airport traffic. At certain locations, flights will be advised prior to takeoff to change to a specified departure frequency. In this case, the change should be made as soon as practicable after takeoff.

If the departure airport is not located within a terminal control area, the pilot, when requesting release from tower frequency, should advise the tower of the agency or frequency to which he/she will change unless directions for the change were included in the ATC clearance.

7.9 IFR Departures from Uncontrolled Airports

Where a pilot-in-command intends to take off from an uncontrolled aerodrome, the pilot shall:

  1. obtain an ATC clearance if in controlled airspace;
  2. report their departure procedure and intentions on the appropriate frequency before moving on to the runway or before aligning the aircraft on the take off path; and
  3. ascertain by radio on the appropriate frequency and by visual observation that no other aircraft or vehicle is likely to come into conflict with the aircraft during takeoff.

The pilot-in-command shall maintain a listening watch:

  1. during takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome; and
  2. after takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome for which a MF has been designated, until the aircraft is beyond the distance or above the altitude associated with that frequency.

As soon as possible after reaching the distance or altitude associated with the MF, the pilot-in-command shall communicate with the appropriate ATC unit or a ground station on the appropriate en-route frequency.

Where IFR departures are required to contact an IFR control unit or ground station after takeoff, it is recommended that, if the aircraft is equipped with two radios, the pilot should also monitor the MF during the departure.

If the aerodrome is located in uncontrolled airspace, these procedures shall be followed except that an ATC clearance is not required. In addition to maintaining a listening watch, it is recommended that the pilot-in-command communicate with the appropriate ATC unit, FIC, or other ground station on the appropriate en-route frequency

NOTE:
It is recommended that pilots inform ATC if a flight will not commence within 60 min of the proposed departure time stipulated in an IFR flight plan. Failure to do so will result in activating the SAR process.

At an uncontrolled aerodrome, the initial IFR clearance may contain a time or an event-based departure restriction or clearance cancellation.

 

Examples:

ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT DEPART UNTIL 1340; CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE BEFORE 1349.

or

ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT DEPART UNTIL CESSNA ABC HAS LANDED; CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE BEFORE 1349.

In the first example, the clearance is valid the moment the time turns 1340 and, in both examples, the clearance is cancelled the moment the time turns 1349.

7.10 Alerting Service IFR Departures from Uncontrolled Airports

At locations where communication with ATS is difficult, pilots may elect to depart VFR and obtain their IFR clearance once airborne. In Canada, if IFR clearance is not received prior to departure, SAR alerting service is activated based on the ETD filed in the flight plan. However, if departing from a Canadian airport that underlies airspace delegated to FAA control, then responsibility for SAR alerting service is transferred to the FAA and FAA procedures apply. In such cases, alerting service is not activated until the aircraft contacts ATS for IFR clearance. Therefore, if the aircraft departs before obtaining its IFR clearance, alerting service is not provided until contact is established with ATS.

   
Date modified:
2012-03-27