Self-Paced Study Program

2010 Flight Crew Recency Requirements Self-Paced Study Program

The Self-Paced Study Program is also available in PDF Format (1 MB).

Refer to paragraph 421.05(2)(d) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs).

This questionnaire is for use from November 1, 2010, to October 31, 2011. Completion of this questionnaire satisfies the 24-month recurrent training program requirements of CAR 401.05(2)(a). It is to be retained by the pilot.

All pilots are to answer questions 1 to 30. In addition, balloon pilots are to answer questions 31 and 32; glider pilots are to answer questions 33 and 34; aeroplane and ultralight aeroplane pilots are to answer questions 35 and 36; helicopter pilots are to answer questions 37 and 38; and gyroplane pilots are to answer questions 39 and 40.

Note: Many answers may be found in the Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM). TC AIM references are at the end of each question. Amendments to this publication may result in changes to answers and/or references. The TC AIM is available on-line at: www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/
publications/tp14371-menu-3092.htm

1. When used in the text of a NOTAM, the date-time group is composed of ten figures, e.g. 1001191200. The first two digits indicate the ___________; the second two, the ___________; the third two, the ___________; and the last four, the _______________.

(GEN 1.6.1)

2. Using the chart in GEN 1.6.2, find the end of evening civil twilight at Medicine Hat, Alta., (50°N 110°45’W) on May 29. _______________.

(GEN 1.6.2)

3.No person shall displace, move or interfere with an aircraft involved in an accident, or disrupt an occurrence site without first having obtained permission from investigators, except to ________________, to ______________ _____________, or to ____________________.

(GEN 3.4.1)

4. Except in the case of an emergency, what must a pilot do prior to using an aerodrome with PPR or PNR listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Water Aerodrome Supplement (WAS)?
PPR: __________________________________________________________________
PNR: __________________________________________________________________.

(AGA 2.2)

5. What VHF direction-finding (VDF) services are available from stations offering VDF? ___________________________________________________________.

(COM 3.10)

6. Is a VFR GPS receiver with a current database acceptable as a replacement for aeronautical charts? ________.

(COM 3.16.16)

7. What information should be included on initial contact with a remote communications outlet (RCO)? ___________________________________________________________________________________.

(COM 5.8.3)

8. In Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA) the correct frequency for two aircraft to use for air-to-air communication is _______MHz.

(COM 5.13.3)

9. Cloud-base heights in aviation routine weather reports (METAR) and aerodrome forecasts (TAF) are always stated as height _________________. On the other hand, heights in graphic area forecasts (GFA) and pilot weather reports (PIREP) are normally stated as height ___________________.

(MET 1.1.5)

10. What does the following represent in a GFA?   
SCT 50
30

_____________________________________________________________.

(MET 3.3.11)

TAF CYXE 281139Z 2812/2912 24010G25KT WS011/ 27050KT 3SM –SN BKN010
OVC040 TEMPO 2818/2901 1 1/2SM –SN BLSN BKN008
PROB30 2820/2822 1/2SM SN VV005
FM290130Z 28010KT 5SM –SN BKN020
BECMG 2906/2908 00000KT P6SM SKC
RMK NXT FCST BY 281800Z

11. What is the period covered by the above forecast? ____________________________________________.

(MET 3.9.3)

12. Describe the wind shear in the above forecast. _______________________________________________.

(MET 3.9.3)

STN YUL - MONTREAL / DORVAL. QUEBEC for use 3000 6000 9000
FDCN01 CWAO FCST BASED ON 121200 DATA VALID 121800 17-21 0910 0906-10 9900-15

13. In the above upper level wind and temperature forecast (FD), what does 9900-15 represent? _____________________________________________________________________________________.

(MET 3.11)

UACN10 CYXU 032133 YZ UA /OV YXU 090010 /TM 2120 /FL080 /TP PA31 /SK
020BKN040 110OVC /TA -12 /WV 030045 /TB MDT BLO 040 /IC LGT RIME
020/040 /RM NIL TURB CYYZ CYHM

14. What is the reported location in the above PIREP? __________________________________________.

(MET 3.17)

15. If an ATC clearance is not acceptable, what should the pilot-in-command do immediately? _____________________________________________________________________________________.

(RAC 1.7)

16. Which of the following classes of airspace requires that a VFR flight establish two-way communication with the appropriate ATC agency prior to entering? Class C, D or E? ____________

(RAC 2.8.3, 2.8.4 and 2.8.5)

17. After asking the passengers for their personal weights, what weight should be added for clothing in winter? ______________________________________________________________________________.

(RAC 3.5.1)

18. After a flight plan or flight itinerary has been filed but not opened with the appropriate ATS unit, what will happen if the flight is delayed or cancelled? ________________ ___________________, unless it is known that the aircraft has not departed.

(RAC 3.6.4)

19. If a pilot closes a flight plan or flight itinerary prior to landing, are the alerting services with respect to search and rescue (SAR) notification still active until after the landing? _____________________.

(RAC 3.12.2)

20. When a mandatory frequency (MF) area exists at an aerodrome but the ground station is not in operation, all reporting procedures specified in CARs 602.97 to 602.103 shall be ________________________.

(RAC 4.5.4)

21. In Canada, the area covered in a visual search during a SAR operation will typically extend to a maximum of ___________________ on either side of the flight-planned route.

(SAR 2.1)

22. Only aircraft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) operating on _____________ can be detected by COSPAS-SARSAT satellites.

(SAR 3.1)

23. Where would you find the index and list of current Canadian aeronautical charts? _________________________________________________________.

(MAP 2.2)

24. New or revised VFR operations which are required to be depicted on VFR charts are advertised first by ____________ until published in the CFS _____________ section then finally updated on the _____________.

(MAP 2.4)

25. What information would you find in a NOTAM? ___________________________________________.

(MAP 5.1)

26. A pilot renewing a category 4 medical declaration should complete the declaration form _____ days before the expiry date of the medical certificate.

(LRA 3.4.1.1)

27. Name one recurrent training program you must have successfully completed within the previous 24 months in order to meet the 2-year requirement. _______________________________.

[LRA 3.9, CAR 421.05(2)]

28. An aircraft altimeter which has the current altimeter setting applied to the subscale should not have an error of more than __________________ when compared to the known ground elevation.

(AIR 1.5.1)

29. If, after receiving routine immunizations, a pilot feels unwell or experiences an adverse reaction, the pilot should wait for ___________________________ and ______________________________________ prior to flying.

(AIR 3.13)

30. Review AIR 4.13 and AIR Annex 1.0
List what is available in the aircraft that you typically fly that could aid you in the event of an injury or a need for shelter. ____________________________________________________________________________________

(AIR 4.13 and AIR Annex 1.0)

Balloon-Specific Questions
31. If the balloon contacts a tree and is moving free of it, what should the pilot do to reduce the risk of adverse consequences? _____________________________________________________________.

(Use balloon references)

32. A person may conduct a take-off in a balloon within a built-up area of a city or town if the diameter of the launch site is _______________________________________________________________________.

[CAR 602.13 (3)(d)]

Glider-Specific
33. The end of the validity period of a medical certificate is calculated from _______________________________________________________________________________.

[CAR 404.04(7)]

34. The ______________ is the indicated airspeed at which the glider loses altitude most slowly.

(Use glider references)

Aeroplane-Specific Questions (including ultralight)
35. If you are approaching for a landing and the wind is gusting from 15 to 25 kt and you normally approach at 65 kt, what should your new approach speed be in those conditions? ______________________.

(Use aeroplane references)

36. Typically, light aircraft are designed to withstand, on landing, 90° crosswinds up to a velocity equal to 20 percent of their stall speed. For an aircraft with a 50-kt stalling speed, what is the maximum permissible 90° crosswind wind speed? _______________________________.

(Use aeroplane references)

Helicopter-Specific Questions
37. When landing in snow and using a high-hover technique, the re-circulating snow will obscure the landing site and will rise. In this condition, what should the pilot do? _______________________ __________________
(Use helicopter references or Aviation Safety Letter [TP 185] 1/2008)

38. In a dynamic rollover situation, when the rollover starts, a correction should be done smoothly by _______________________________________________________________________.

(Use helicopter references)

Gyroplane-Specific
39. Statistics reveal that the major cause of gyroplane accidents is pilot error and it is often linked to the lack of _________ _____________________________________.

(Use gyroplane references)

40. To minimize the possibility of pilot-induced oscillation (PIO), avoid [high/low] speed flight in gusty conditions, and make only [large/small] control inputs. After making a control input, wait briefly and observe the reaction of the aircraft before making another input.

(Use gyroplane references)



Answers to the 2010 Self-Paced Study Program

1. year, month, day, hour and minutes
2. 22:02 Mountain Daylight Time
3. extricate any person; prevent destruction by fire or other cause; avoid danger to any person or property
4. PPR: Obtain the aerodrome operator’s permission prior to use. PNR: Notify the aerodrome owner or operator prior to use in order that current information on the aerodrome may be provided.
5. Bearing and heading information to the site.
6. No.
7. The identification of the ATS unit (FSS or FIC) controlling the RCO, the aircraft identification and the name of the location of the RCO followed by R-C-O in a non-phonetic form.
8. 122.75.
9. above ground level (AGL); above sea level (ASL).
10. Unorganized scattered clouds are forecast based at 3 000 ft ASL with tops at 5 000 ft ASL.
11. From the 28th day of the month at 1200Z to the 29th day of the month at 1200Z.
12. Wind shear is forecast to exist in the layer from the surface to 1 100 ft AGL, with the wind at the shear height of 270° true at 50 kt.
13. Wind light and variable, temperature -15°C.
14. YXU (London VOR) 090° radial at 10 NM.
15. Inform ATC of this fact, since acknowledgement of the clearance alone will be taken by a controller as indicating acceptance.
16. Class C requires a clearance, Class D requires communication.
17. 14 lbs or 6.4 kg.
18. The ATS unit will activate the flight plan or flight itinerary, using the estimated time of departure (ETD) as the actual time of departure (ATD).
19. No.
20. broadcast.
21. 15 NM.
22. 406 MHz.
23. www.navcanada.ca under “Aeronautical Information Products”.
24. NOTAM, VFR chart updating data, VFR chart.
25. Information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard.
26. 60
27. Complete a flight review with an instructor, attend a safety seminar conducted by Transport Canada, participate in an approved recurrent training program, complete this self-paced study program, complete a pilot proficiency check (PPC), complete the requirements for the issue or renewal of a licence, permit or rating, or complete the written exam for a licence, permit or rating.
28. ± 50 ft
29. 24 hours; be assessed by a health-care provider
30. List might include kits, basic survival manual and other resources.
31. Hold in all free lines, control lines and hoses to avoid entanglement
32. no less than the greater of (i) 100 ft, and (ii) the greatest dimension of the balloon, be it the length, width or height, plus 25 percent.
33. the first day of the month following the day on which the medical examination for the issuance or renewal of the certificate is conducted.
34. minimum sink speed
35. 70 kt. Add an amount equal to half the gust factor of 10 kt.
36. 10 kt.
37. Stay above the rising snow and wait until solid references appear beneath the aircraft.
38. lowering the collective
39. training
40. high; small

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