2023-2024 Flight Crew Recency Requirements Self-Paced Study Program

 

Refer to paragraph 421.05(2)(d) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), which is designed for pilots to update their knowledge on subjects such as human factors, meteorology, flight planning and navigation, and aviation regulations.

Completion of this questionnaire satisfies the 24-month recurrent training program requirements of CARs 401.05(2)(a). It is to be retained by the pilot.

All pilots are to answer questions 1 to 42. In addition:

  • Aeroplane pilots are to answer questions 43 to 53;
  • helicopter pilots are to answer questions 54 to 56;
  • balloon pilots are to answer questions 61 to 65;
  • glider pilots are to answer questions 57 to 60; and
  • ultra-light aeroplane pilots, gyroplane, weight-shift control, powered-parachute are to answer questions 66 to 78, as applicable.

References are listed after each question. Amendments to these publications may result in changes to answers and/or references. Many answers may be found in the following sources:

GEN–General

1. What is meant by the following ATC instruction “Cleared for the option” for an arriving aircraft?

Reference: TC AIM - RAC 4.4.3

Answer 1:

It allows the pilot to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go or full-stop landing, at their discretion.

AGA–Aerodromes

Nav Canada publishes the Canadian Airport Charts (CAC)

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The Threshold for runway 18 is displaced 800’ (diagram above).

2. Are you permitted to land on the displaced threshold of runway 18?

Reference: AGA 3.5, 5.4.1

Answer 2:

No, it is permissible to use the displaced portion of the runway for taxiing, takeoff, and landing roll-out from the opposite direction.

3. What is your landing distance available runway 18?

Reference: Canadian Airport Charts (CAC) - Legend

Answer 3:

5200

4. How many windsock on this aerodrome chart?

Reference: Canadian Airport Charts (CAC) - Legend

Answer 4:

2

COM–Communications

5. What is the recommended procedure for phone use if you suffer a communication failure.?

Reference: TC AIM COM section 1.7

Answer 5:

PHONE USE DURING A RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE. In the event of an in-flight radio communications failure, and only after normal communications failure procedures have been followed, the pilot-in-command may attempt to contact the appropriate NAV CANADA air traffic service (ATS) unit by means of a conventional cell or satellite phone. Before placing the call, transponder-equipped aircraft should squawk Code 7600. Public switched telephone network (PSTN) numbers to be used in the event of a communication are published in the CFS

6. In Canadian Southern Domestic Airspace, the correct frequency for two pilots to use for air-to-air communication is MHz. Frequency MHz is allocated for soaring activities which include balloons, gliders, sailplanes, ultralights and hang gliders.

Reference: AIP Part 1 GENERAL 3.4.3.2 Voice Services

Answer 6:

122.75; 123.45

MET–Meteorology

7. What are the hours of service and the telephone number of your Flight Information Center (FIC)?

Reference: TC AIM – MET 1.3.1

Answer 7:

All FICs provide 24-hr service. FIC telephone numbers are provided in the CFS. Pilots dialing the common toll-free number 1-866-WXBRIEF (992-7433) will automatically be routed to the FIC serving the area from which the call is being made

8. On a GFA what weather conditions define the term ‘Marginal VFR?’

Reference: TC AIM MET 4.9

Answer 8:

Ceilings between 1 000 ft and 3 000 ft AGL and/or visibilities between 3 and 5 SM

9. You are reading a GFA and notice that it describes fog in a particular area as PTCHY. What does this mean? How does it specifically describe the fog?

Reference: TC AIM MET 4.11

Answer 9:

Patchy, 26 to 50% of the defined area is affected by the fog.

10. State four (4) differences between human observations and AWOS observations.

Reference: TC AIM-MET 8.5.4, table 8.3

Answer 10:

As per Comparison Table.

11. You are reading a GFA and come across a term that you are not familiar with. What resources can you use to find the correct meaning?

References: TC AIM MET 15.0 Abbreviations, Nav Canada Weather Services Guide, CFS

Answer 11:

TC AIM MET 15.0 Abbreviations, Nav Canada Weather Services Guide, Call your FIC at 1-866-WXBRIEF and ask a Flight Service Specialist

12. In the METAR below, what does 250V310 mean?

METAR CYOW 271800Z 29013G20KT 250V310 15SM BKN060 22/11 A2990 RMK SC6 SLP128 DENSITY ALT 1400FT=

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide

Answer 12:

winds variable 250 to 310

13. In the TAF below, at what time are the light rain showers forcast to end?

TAF
CYOW

TAF CYOW 271740Z
2718/2818 28015G25KT P6SM BKN050
FM280000 27010KT P6SM −SHRA OVC050
FM280500 31008KT P6SM −SHRA OVC020
FM280900 31008KT P6SM BKN025 BKN100
FM281100 28010KT P6SM FEW030
FM281700 25010KT P6SM SCT050
RMK NXT FCST BY 272100Z=

 

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide

Answer 13:

0900Z

14. Using the TAF below, what is the forecasted weather conditions for the duration of the flight with a departure at 1700Z on a 2-hour local flight?

  • a) The lowest cloud layer expected is 2000 AGL
  • b) Winds will shift from 100° to 270°
  • c) The ceiling on arrival will be 5000 AGL
  • d) Both a and b

TAF CYVR 061140Z

0612/0718 22010KT P6SM FEW020 SCT050 SCT200 TEMPO 0612/0618 SCT020 BKN050 BKN200 BECMG 0613/0615 10008KT FM061800 27008KT P6SM SCT040 BKN140 FM070900 30008KT P6SM SCT025 BKN050 BKN080 RMK NXT FCST BY 061500Z=

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide

Answer 14:

d)

Given the GFA below answer the next couple of questions.

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15. From the GFA above, What does the boxed 15 mean in this picture?

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Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide

Answer 15:

Centre of the High pressure is moving at 15 KT.

16. From the GFA above, What does this picture mean?

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Reference: Weather manuals and documentation (MANAB) - 4th edition dec 2021

Answer 16:

Local ½ statute mile fog ceiling 200 feet above ground level, cloud top 1500 feet above sea level over and near Lake Superior.

Given

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17. Interpret the following information below from the GFA above.

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Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide and Weather manuals and documentation (MANAB) - 4th edition Dec 2021 and Air Command Weather Manual (TP9352) Chapter 9 Aircraft Icing

Answer 17:

Patchy moderate mixed type of ice formation (rime and clear) between 3000 and 6000 feet ASL and local moderate mixed type of ice formation (rime and clear) from surface to 3000 feet ASL due to local freezing drizzle.

RAC–Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services

18. No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within after consuming an alcoholic beverage.

Reference: CARs 602.03(a)

Answer 18:

12 hours

19. Flight crew (pilots and flight engineers) and flight controllers (air traffic controllers) are prohibited from the use of cannabis for at least days before being on duty. Transport Canada defines “cannabis use” as the use of any and for any purpose (including )

Reference: Cannabis legalization

Answer 19:

28, method (including smoking, vaping, eating, or applying to the skin), medical, recreational, or other non-medical reasons

20. In addition to a serviceable 2-way radio, what minimum equipment is required to enter VFR in Class C Airspace?

Reference: TC AIM RAC section 2.8.3

Answer 20:

Mode C transponder

21. Before entering class C airspace, VFR flights require from ATC and before entering class D airspace VFR flights must .

Reference: AIM-RAC 2.8.3 and 2.8.4

Answer 21:

a clearance; establish two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit

22. An aircraft could be permitted in class F restricted airspace only if .

Reference: TC AIM-RAC 2.8.6

Answer 22:

permission has been obtained from the user agency

23. No person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below feet AGL within NM of the imits of a forest fire area, or as described in a NOTAM.

Reference: TC AIM RAC 2.9.2

Answer 23:

3000, 5

24. What is the radio frequency to be used at a uncontrolled aerodrome without a published Mandatory Frequency (MF) or Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)?

Reference: TC AIM RAC section 4.5.5

Answer 24:

The ATF will normally be the frequency of the UNICOM where one exists or 123.2 MHz

25. What is the standard departure procedure from the circuit at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

Reference: TC AIM-RAC 4.5.2

Answer 25:

Climb straight ahead on the runway heading up to the circuit traffic altitude before commencing a turn in any direction to an en route heading. A turn back toward the circuit or aerodrome should not be initiated until the aircraft is at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude.

26. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft that has the other on its shall give way, except as follows:

  • (a) a power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons;
  • (b) an airship shall give way to gliders and balloons;
  • (c) a glider shall give way to balloons; and
  • (d) a power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load.

Reference: TC AIM RAC 1.8

Answer 26:

right

SAR – Search and Rescue

27. Raising a portable ELT from ground level to 2.44 m (8 feet) increases its range by %.

Reference: TC-AIM SAR 3.6

Answer 27:

20 to 40

MAP–Aeronautical Charts & Publications

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28. Explain numbers (1) to (10) in the NOTAM format description above

Reference: TC AIM MAP 3.2

Answer 28:
  1. Aeronautical fixed service (AFS) message priority andaddressing (recipients)
  2. Date and time (DDHHMM) and addressing (originator)
  3. NOTAM Series, number, and year of issuance
  4. NOTAM type (New, Replacement, Cancellation)
  5. Item Q): Coded line for custom briefings
  6. Item A): Location indicator(s)
  7. Item B): Start date and time
  8. Item C): End date and time
  9. Item D): Schedule
  10. Item E): NOTAM text

LRA–Licensing, Registration & Airworthiness

29. A pilot wishing to renew a Category 4 Medical Certificate shall complete Form 26-0297, Medical Declaration for Licences and Permits Requiring a Category 4 Medical Standard, at least days before the expiry date of their medical certificate. This will allow TC licensing personnel enough time to issue a new Category 4 Medical Certificate before the original medical certificate expires. It is recommended that pilots applying for a Category 4 Medical Certificate do so by . Medical declarations should be sent to to avoid unnecessary delays.

Reference: TC AIM-LRA 1.9.3

Answer 29:

60, e-mail, the regional service centre and not Civil Aviation Medicine

30. In addition to the particulars of any defect in any part of the aircraft or its equipment that becomes apparent during flight operations, pilots must also enter the particulars of any to which the aircraft has been subjected into the aircraft’s records.

Reference: CARs 605 Schedule I, TC AIM-LRA 5.6.1

Answer 30:

abnormal occurrence

AIR Airmanship

31. Light aircraft manufactured in the United States are designed to withstand, on landing, 90° crosswinds up to a velocity equal to of their stalling speed.

Reference: TC AIM AIR 2.2 CROSSWIND LANDING LIMITATIONS

Answer 31:

20%

32. MOGAS is (more, less) susceptible to the formation of carburetor icing.

Reference: TC AIM AIR section 2.3

Answer 32:

More, Due to its higher volatility, MOGAS is more susceptible to the formation of carburetor icing. In severe cases, ice may form at OATs up to 20°C higher than with AVGAS

33. Due to the presence of rain on the windscreen a hilltop or peak ahead may appear (higher, lower) that it actually is.

Reference: TC AIM AIR section 2.5

Answer 33:

lower, A hilltop or peak 1/2 NM ahead of an aircraft could appear to be approximately 260 ft lower, (230 ft lower at 1/2 SM) than it is

34. Adverse effects of frost, ice or snow on aircraft performance and flight characteristics are generally reflected in the form of decreased thrust, decreased lift, increased drag, , trim changes, altered stall characteristics and handling qualities.

Reference: TC AIM – AIR - 2.12.2 (b)(i) Aircraft Contamination on the Ground – Frost, Ice or Snow

Answer 34:

increased stall speed

35. Active pilots that have donated blood should wait hours before flying.

Reference: TC AIM AIR section 3.12

Answer 35:

48 hours,

36. What does it mean when ATC tells you to take off or taxi “at your discretion”?

Reference: Nav Canada VFR phraseology guide

Answer 36:

You are responsible for safety and separation. ATC has given you the instruction with the intent that you comply as soon as safely able and may be instructing surrounding traffic based on this assumption. Any delay in taxiing, taking off or landing should be reported to ATC.

37. The , , and of the approach and landing will be directly related to whether or not the prior to, or shortly after, establishing the aircraft on the final approach leg.

ASL Issue 1/2020 Stabilized approaches in VFR

https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/publications/aviation-safety-letter/issue-1-2020/stabilized-approaches-vfr

Answer 37:

The quality, smoothness, and safety of the approach and landing will be directly related to whether or not the aircraft was stabilized prior to, or shortly after, establishing the aircraft on the final approach leg.

38. While descending through 400’ AGL on final approach for landing, the pilot observes the airspeed is 5 knots slow and slowly decreasing while the descent rate is constant at approximately 600 fpm, the runway threshold is steady in the windscreen, and the aeroplane is centered with the runway centerline. To stabilize the aircraft prior to descending below 200’ AGL the pilot should;

  • a. pitch down to correct airspeed then trim
  • b. increase power to correct the descent then trim
  • c. increase power while pitching down to correct both airspeed and descent rate then trim
  • d. increase power while pitching down to correct airspeed while maintaining a steady descent then trim

Reference: PPL Flight Test Guide and Flight Training Manual

Answer 38:

d)

39. A pilot will experience the sensation of pitching upwards during take-off and initial climb out at night due to a combination of acceleration, G forces and limited outside visual references. To compensate for this sensation a pilot may instinctively pitch forward. Pilots should to maintain good situational awareness and prevent unusual attitudes.

Reference: AIM AIR 3.7 Disorientation.

Answer 39:

reference and rely on their flight instruments

RPA - Remotely Piloted Aircraft

40. Where can I find info on Remotely Pilot Aircraft information and regulation?

Reference: CARs Part IX, TC AIM-RPA

Answer 40:

CARs subpart 900 and TC AIM in section RPA

Electronic Flight Bag/Maps/VTA/VNC/CFA

41. What is the common frequency areas (CFA) frequency refered to in Nav Canada AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION CIRCULAR 14/22 for Montreal-North and Montreal-South?

Reference: AIC 14/22 https://www.navcanada.ca/en/aiceng202214.pdf

Answer 41:

The frequency for CFA for Montreal-North is 122.1 MHz and the frequency for CFA Montreal-South is 122.575 MHz.

Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)

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42. During an early morning flight at 1300Z how should a pilot approach the traffic circuit for a full stop landing?

Reference: CFS and TC AIM RAC 4.5.2

Answer 42:

For aerodromes within an MF area when airport advisory information is not available: Aircraft should normally approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side.

Aeroplane-specific questions

43. Name at least three factors affecting the stall speed of an aeroplane.

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Reference: use aeroplane references, FTM, TP 975

Answer 43:

Factors include: weight; location of the centre of gravity; turbulence; angle of bank; the use of flaps; the use retractable landing gear; wing contamination; heavy rain; load factor; power.

44. Calculate the total distance to clear a 50 ft obstacle given the following information:

Weight of 2300 lbs
Temperature 20 degress celcius
Pressure altitude: 2000 feet

Reference: Figure 5-4 Takeoff distance chart above

Answer 44:

1790 feet

45. What is the flap configuration for takeoff?

Reference: Figure 5-4 Takeoff distance chart above - Conditions

Answer 45:

Flaps up

46. Question: What is the effect of a 5 knots headwind

Reference: Figure 5-4 Takeoff distance chart above - Notes

Answer 46:

decrease distance by 10% of 1790 feet multiplied by 5/9 = 99 feet reduction equals 1691.

47. What is your liftoff and 50 foot climb speed

Reference: Figure 5-4 Takeoff distance chart above

Answer 47:

52, 59 KIAS

48. The worst possible take-off (and climb) performance can be expected when the following four conditions are present.

Air temperature

Airport elevation

Atmospheric pressure

Relative humidity

Reference: Flight Training Manual (TP 1102) Take-off performance

Answer 48:

High (above 15 degrees C), High, Low (below 29.92) and High

49. What is the significance of the white arc in an airspeed indicator?

Reference: Pilot Operating Handbook(POH)

Answer 49:

Full flap operating range. Lower limit is maximum weight Vso in landing configuration. Upper limit is maximum speed permissible with flaps extended. (See POH of the aircraft you operate)

50. What percentage does the stall speed increase in a 40-degree and 60-degree level bank turn?

Reference: TP1102 Flight Training Manual Exercise Nine – Turns Figure 2-16

Answer 50:

13%, 40%

51. In the event of an overshoot (go around or balked landing) refer to the POH of your aircraft. If no procedure is recommended in POH describe your go-around procedure.

Reference: Flight Training Manual TP 1102 Approach and Landing

Answer 51:

As soon as decision is taken to overshoot: apply full power, accelerate to a safe climb speed in level flight, reduce flap extension as required for type and raise nose to a climbing attitude. Keep straight as throttle is opened and trim off the pressure on the control column. Start the climb, control the aircraft, raise flaps, adjust climb speed and retrim aircraft.

52. You have just turned base to final leg of the circuit and are preparing to land. To fly a stable approach to the runway in VFR conditions, what elements should be present?

Reference: Stabilized Approach - Civil Aviation Safety Alerts (CASA) No. 2015-04

Answer 52:

The aircraft must be on track, both horizontally and vertically, at the proper power setting, speed, and rate of descent, and with a landing configuration appropriate for the conditions of the day.

53. You are in the scenario presented in the previous question above and are below 500 feet AGL, if any of the elements are not present what should you consider doing?

Reference: Stabilized Approach - Civil Aviation Safety Alerts (CASA) No. 2015-04

Answer 53:

Execute a go around per the procedures in your aircraft flight manual.

Helicopter-specific questions

54. (Please take note that the following statement applied to helicopters without some type of stabilization system) Robinson Helicopter Company Safety Notice SN-18 state that Helicopters, have stability and roll and pitch rates than airplanes. Loss of the pilot’s outside visual references, even for a , can result in disorientation, wrong control inputs, and an uncontrolled crash.

Reference: https://robinsonheli.com/robinson-safety-notices/

Answer 54:

less inherent, much faster, moment

55. TSB investigation report A18Q0016, A19O0026 and A11Q0168 describe a night condition, where they are few or no visual references, with the potential to lead to various illusions and cause spatial disorientation. What do we call this night condition?

Reference: https://www.tsb.gc.ca/eng/rapports-reports/aviation/index.html

Answer 55:

black hole

56. Please review the video Helicopter wake turbulence: a dangerous phenomenon at:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs

Studies show that helicopter wake turbulence is of a greater intensity than those of an aeroplane of equivalent weight and can have fatal consequences to lighter aircraft. The effect of helicopter wake turbulence can occur over and be spread over a area. When you are operating in the vicinity of light aircraft,

Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs

Answer 56:

relatively long distances; large; adapt your trajectory if your wake turbulence can possibly reach another aircraft.

Glider-specific questions

57. Why is it critical that a glider on tow, immediately after release, initiate a right turn?

Reference: Air transportation safety investigation report A19W0099

Answer 57:

The objective of the glider turning to the right after release is to quickly get clear of the towplane’s slipstream and the dangling rope, but also to move to the side so that the towpilot can see you.

58. You are on a cross country flight, all of a sudden the lift you have been counting on disappears and you cannot reach a suitable airfield and must land out. What are some considerations in selecting where you will land?

Reference: SOAR - new ed (sac.ca)

Answer 58:

Surface Wind, Field Length, Obstructions, Slope, Surface

59. In the scenario presented the previous question above, you see four likely areas that appear to be suitable for landing, which will you choose?

  • a. A cornfield
  • b. Open pasture
  • c. Stubble - a recently harvested field
  • d. A marsh

Reference: SOAR - new ed (sac.ca) Appendix B Field Landing Notes p 129-130

Answer 59:

Stubble, a recently harvested field.

60. You are on the takeoff roll behind the towplane and have just gotten airborne. Suddenly, the canopy springs open, distracting you and you immediately attempt to close it. What hazard have you potentially introduced for the tow pilot?

Reference: SOAR - new ed (sac.ca) p71-72

Answer 60:

The potential for towplane upset or kiting by the glider

Balloon-specific questions

61. If frost develops at a propane tank valve stem, what should you suspect is the cause? .

Reference: (use balloon references)

Answer 61:

A propane leak at the valve stem.

62. To launch an 84 foot balloon within a built-up area, the diameter of the launch site may be no less than .

Reference: CARs 602.13

Answer 62:

105 feet

63. What are three sources of distractions that break a normal flow and disrupt standard operating procedures?

Reference: The dangerous power of powerlines: Tips for avoiding collisions and close encounters (ASL 3/2021)

Answer 63:

A coordinating with a chase crew, passengers, and spectators

64. One of the hazards of contour flying or flying in close proximity to trees includes powerlines. What is the safest decision if a powerline strike is imminent?

Reference: The dangerous power of powerlines: Tips for avoiding collisions and close encounters (ASL 3/2021)

Answer 64:

Turn off all fuel, Bleed all remaining fuel from the lines and “rip out (open wide)” the deflation port

65. What instruments and eqipment is required to fly a hot air balloon during a day VFR flight?

Reference: CARs 605.19 Balloons – Day VFR

Answer 65:

an altimeter, a vertical speed indicator, a fuel quantity gauge, an envelope temperature indicator, a two-way VHF air-band radio to operate in Class C or D airspace, an MF (unless operating in accordance with 602.97(3)) or ADIZ.

Ultra-light-specific questions

66. Low-level flight is a high-risk activity as not all hazards, such as , are physically marked or can be seen in time to avoid a collision. A number of these accidents occur over , in and at very low altitudes.

Reference: ASL 3/2021 TSB Final Report A20W0072 – Collision with power line

Answer 66:

power transmission lines; level terrain; good weather

Gyroplane specific questions

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Source: Autogyro Calidus POH

67. A pilot operating this make/model of gyroplane operating at approximately 75 feet above ground and into a 30 knot headwind would need to fly at an indicated airspeed of at least to allow for a safe landing in the event of an engine failure.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 67:

85 km/h

Various gyroplane POH’s

68. Flapping of rotor blades is the result of:

  • a. Dissymmetry of lift
  • b. Retreating blade stall
  • c. Transverse flow effect
  • d. High taxi speeds

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 68:

Dissymmetry of lift

69. During ground operations in the event blade flap is encountered, immediate pilot actions are:

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 69:

1) Apply forward cyclic to reduce rotor disc angle

2) Slow the gyroplane by reducing throttle and applying brakes.

70. How does a negative G maneuver affect a gyroplane’s rotor RPM?

  • a. Increases rapidly
  • b. Remains the same
  • c. Decreases rapidly

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 70:

Decreases rapidly

71. The Region of the rotor disc is the area contributing most of the autorotative force, while the Region contributes most of the vertical component of lift.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 71:

Driving; Driven

Weight-Shift Control Aircraft specific questions:

72. At times, weight-shift control pilots find themselves in an unintentional steep-banked descending spiral turn. This may happen while performing an emergency descent but more commonly happens when the pilot spots something on the ground and wants to get a closer look. The pilot initiates a turn which steepens to 45 to 60 degrees of bank or greater. The appropriate recovery technique is to , , and .

Reference: Weight-Shift Control Aircraft Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-5) Addendum

Answer 72:

simultaneously reduce throttle; pull the control bar in to reduce pitch; move the control bar to the side to level the wing

73. If a weight-shift control aircraft tumbles, this will most likely result in a structural failure of the aircraft and serious injury or death to the occupants. What three things can the pilot do to avoid a tuck and tumble:

Reference: Weight-Shift Control Aircraft Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-5) – Chapter 6

Answer 73:
  1. Flying within the manufacturer’s limitations
  2. Flying in conditions that are not conducive to tucks and tumbles
  3. Obtaining the proper training in pitch stability for the weight-shift control aircraft.

Powered-Parachute Specific questions

74. Please review the video Helicopter wake turbulence: a dangerous phenomenon at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs

Studies show that helicopter wake turbulence is of a greater intensity than those of an aeroplane of equivalent weight. The effect of helicopter wake turbulence can occur over and be spread over a area. When you see a helicopter operating at a similar altitude, to avoid the wake turbulence that can last minutes.

Reference: video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs

Answer 74:

relatively long distances, large ; adapt your trajectory and fly away as soon as possible ;several

75. Meteorological events such as dust devils can present a significant hazard to paraglider and powered parachute aircraft operations. Dust devils are that typically form on when causes the air adjacent to the ground to heat up as well. Dust devils are visible evidence of

Reference: TSB safety investigation report A20W0035

The Powered Paragliding Bible by Jeff Goin – Page 74

Answer 75:

rotating updrafts or eddies; hot sunny days; strong surface heating; very dangerous air.

76. What are the potential consequences of overloading paramotor wings:

  • a. dynamic reaction to flying events
  • b. increased sink rate
  • c. increased stall speed
  • d. material failure

References: Paragliding: The Beginner’s Guide by Bastienne Wentzel, Ed Ewing

Powered Paragliding Bible by Jeff Goin

Answer 76:

Material failure

77. Where can you find out your wing's service schedule information?

  • a. Facebook
  • b. Tucker Gott's Youtube channel
  • c. Flying buddies
  • d. Wing manual

Reference: Wing manual - chapter about Inspections

Answer 77:

Wing Manual

78. Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above feet ASL but not exceeding feet ASL, each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes in duration.

  • a. 10,000 - 13,000
  • b. 8,000 - 11,000
  • c. 15,000 - 18,000

Reference: CARs 605.32

Answer 78:

10,000-13,000

Certification

Name:
Licence #:
Date:

I certify that I have completed this questionnaire to satisfies the 24-month recurrent training program requirements of CARs 401.05(2)(a).

I will retain this questionnaire and make it available when requested.

Signature: